When I found out that when you are asked in Court if you "understand", you are really being asked if you "stand under" the Court's Authority, I felt that it was a deception, a 'tacky' thing for Courts to do.
I've tried to research where this procedure comes from, but I'm not getting anywhere.
The best I can come up with, is the Babylon free on-line dictionary that gives the following results:-
Webster's Revised Unabridged Dictionary (1913)
Understand
(v. t.)
To stand under; to support.
hEnglish - advanced version
understand
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understand
\un`der*stand"\, v. i.
1. to have the use of the intellectual faculties; to be an intelligent being. imparadised in you, in whom alone i understand, and grow, and see.
2. to be informed; to have or receive knowledge. i came to jerusalem, and understood of the evil that eliashib did for tobiah. xiii. 7.
understand
\un`der*stand"\ (ŭn`d&etilde;r*stănd"), v. t. [imp. & p. p. understood (?), and archaic understanded; p. pr. & vb. n. understanding.] [oe. understanden, as. understandan, literally, to stand under; cf. as. forstandan to understand, g. verstehen. the development of sense is not clear. see under, and stand.] 1. to have just and adequate ideas of; to apprehended the meaning {note- I've abridged the rest - Piper}
5. to stand under; to support. [jocose & r.]
Perhaps someone who is into words can do something more with this.
If anyone knows about, or has documentary evidence that authorises Courts to pull this stunt, please submit it.
Best Regards -